1. Why is asset management a critical function of a growing organization against security threats?
a) It identifies the ever increasing attack surface to threats.
b) It allows for a build of a comprehensive AUP.
c) It serves to preserve an audit trail of all new purchases.
d) It prevents theft of older assets that are decommissioned.
Solution: a) It identifies the ever increasing attack surface to threats.
Explanation: Asset management is a critical component of a growing organization from a security aspect. Asset management consists of inventorying all assets, and then developing and implementing policies and procedures to protect them. As an organization grows, so does the attack surface in terms of security threats. Each of these assets can attract different threat actors who have different skill levels and motivations. Asset management can help mitigate these threats by inventorying the risks as the attack surface grows.
2. In a defense-in-depth approach, which three options must be identified to effectively defend a network against attacks? (Choose three.)
a) total number of devices that attach to the wired and wireless network
b) assets that need protection
c) vulnerabilities in the system
d) location of attacker or attackers
e) past security breaches
f) threats to assets
Solution: b) assets that need protection
c) vulnerabilities in the system
f) threats to assets
Explanation: In order to prepare for a security attack, IT security personnel must identify assets that need to be protected such as servers, routers, access points, and end devices. They must also identify potential threats to the assets and vulnerabilities in the system or design.
3. What is the first line of defense when an organization is using a defense-in-depth approach to network security?
a) edge router
b) firewall
c) proxy server
d) IPS
Solution: a) edge router
Explanation: A defense-in-depth approach uses layers of security measures starting at the network edge, working through the network, and finally ending at the network endpoints. Routers at the network edge are the first line of defense and forward traffic intended for the internal network to the firewall.
4. What three goals does a BYOD security policy accomplish? (Choose three.)
a) identify all malware signatures and synchronize them across corporate databases
b) identify which employees can bring their own devices
c) identify safeguards to put in place if a device is compromised
d) identify and prevent all heuristic virus signatures
e) identify a list of websites that users are not permitted to access
f) describe the rights to access and activities permitted to security personnel on the device
Solution: b) identify which employees can bring their own devices
c) identify safeguards to put in place if a device is compromised
f) describe the rights to access and activities permitted to security personnel on the device
Explanation: A comprehensive BYOD policy should accomplish the following:
5. Which two options are security best practices that help mitigate BYOD risks? (Choose two.)
a) Use paint that reflects wireless signals and glass that prevents the signals from going outside the building.
b) Keep the device OS and software updated.
c) Only allow devices that have been approved by the corporate IT team.
d) Only turn on Wi-Fi when using the wireless network.
e) Decrease the wireless antenna gain level.
f) Use wireless MAC address filtering.
Solution: b) Keep the device OS and software updated.
c) Only allow devices that have been approved by the corporate IT team.
Explanation: Many companies now support employees and visitors attaching and using wireless devices that connect to and use the corporate wireless network. This practice is known as a bring-your-own-device policy or BYOD. Commonly, BYOD security practices are included in the security policy. Some best practices that mitigate BYOD risks include the following:
6. What is the purpose of mobile device management (MDM) software?
a) It is used to create a security policy.
b) It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software configurations on mobile devices.
c) It is used to identify potential mobile device vulnerabilities.
d) It is used by threat actors to penetrate the system.
Solution: b) It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software configurations on mobile devices.
Explanation: Mobile device management (MDM) software is used with mobile devices so that corporate IT personnel can track the devices, implement security settings, as well as control software configurations.
7. What does the incident handling procedures security policy describe?
a) It describes how security incidents are handled.
b) It describes the procedure for auditing the network after a cyberattack.
c) It describes the procedure for mitigating cyberattacks.
d) It describes how to prevent various cyberattacks.
Solution: a) It describes how security incidents are handled.
Explanation: The incident handling procedures security policy describes how security incidents are handled.
8. Match the type of business policy to the description.
a) defines system requirements and objectives, rules, and requirements for users when they attach to or on the network ==> security
b) protects the rights of workers and the company interests ==> company
c) identifies salary, pay schedule, benefits, work schedule, vacations, etc. ==> employee
Solution: a) security
b) company
c) employee
Explanation: The types of business policies are matched with their descriptions:
9. Match the threat intelligence sharing standards with the description.
a) This is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS. ==> TAXII
b) This is a set of specifications for exchanging cyberthreat information between organizations. ==> STIX
c) This is is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations. ==> CybOX
Solution: a) TAXII
b) STIX
c) CybOX
Explanation: The threat intelligence sharing standards are matched with their descriptions:
10. What is the primary purpose of the Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams (FIRST)?
a) to enable a variety of computer security incident response teams to collaborate, cooperate, and coordinate information sharing, incident prevention, and rapid reaction strategies
b) to provide a security news portal that aggregates the latest breaking news pertaining to alerts, exploits, and vulnerabilities
c) to offer 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability identification, and mitigation and incident response
d) to provide vendor neutral education products and career services to industry professionals worldwide
Solution: a) to enable a variety of computer security incident response teams to collaborate, cooperate, and coordinate information sharing, incident prevention, and rapid reaction strategies
Explanation: The primary purpose of the Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams (FIRST) is to enable a variety of computer security incident response teams to collaborate, cooperate, and coordinate information sharing, incident prevention, and rapid reaction between the teams.
11. What is the primary purpose of the Malware Information Sharing Platform (MISP)?
a) to publish all informational materials on known and newly discovered cyberthreats
b) to enable automated sharing of IOCs between people and machines using the STIX and other exports formats
c) to provide a set of standardized schemata for specifying and capturing events and properties of network operations
d) to exchange all the response mechanisms to known threats
Solution: b) to enable automated sharing of IOCs between people and machines using the STIX and other exports formats
Explanation: Malware Information Sharing Platform (MISP) is an open source platform that enables automated sharing of IOCs between people and machines using the STIX and other exports formats.
12. What is TAXII?
a) It is a set of specifications for exchanging cyber threat information between organizations.
b) It is a signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis to detect zero-day threats.
c) It is a dynamic database of real-time vulnerabilities.
d) It is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS.
Solution: d) It is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS.
Explanation: Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information (TAXII) is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS. TAXII is designed to support Structured Threat Information Expression (STIX).
13. Which organization defines unique CVE Identifiers for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities that make it easier to share data?
a) Cisco Talos
b) DHS
c) FireEye
d) MITRE
Solution: d) MITRE
Explanation: The United States government sponsored the MITRE Corporation to create and maintain a catalog of known security threats called Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE). The CVE serves as a dictionary of common names (i.e., CVE Identifiers) for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
14. How does FireEye detect and prevent zero-day attacks?
a) by establishing an authentication parameter prior to any data exchange
b) by addressing all stages of an attack lifecycle with a signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis
c) by keeping a detailed analysis of all viruses and malware
d) by only accepting encrypted data packets that validate against their configured hash values
Solution: b) by addressing all stages of an attack lifecycle with a signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis
Explanation: FireEye uses a three-pronged approach combining security intelligence, security expertise, and technology. It addresses all stages of an attack lifecycle with a signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis to detect zero-day threats.
15. What is the primary function of the Center for Internet Security (CIS)?
a) to maintain a list of common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) used by security organizations
b) to provide a security news portal that aggregates the latest breaking news pertaining to alerts, exploits, and vulnerabilities
c) to offer 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability identification, and mitigation and incident responses
d) to provide vendor-neutral education products and career services to industry professionals worldwide
Solution: c) to offer 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability identification, and mitigation and incident responses
Explanation: CIS offers 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability identification, and mitigation and incident responses to state, local, tribal, and territorial (SLTT) governments through the Multi-State Information Sharing and Analysis Center (MS-ISAC).
16. What is CybOX?
a) It is a specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS.
b) It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations.
c) It enables the real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators between the U.S. Federal Government and the private sector.
d) It is a catalog of known security threats called Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
Solution: b) It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations.
Explanation: CybOX is a set of open standards that provide the specifications that aid in the automated exchange of cyberthreat intelligence information in a standardized format. It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations that support many cybersecurity functions.
17. A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of information security is addressed through the configuration?
a) availability
b) integrity
c) scalability
d) confidentiality
Solution: d) confidentiality
Explanation: Confidentiality ensures that data is accessed only by authorized individuals. Authentication will help verify the identity of the individuals.
18. When designing a prototype network for a new server farm, a network designer chooses to use redundant links to connect to the rest of the network. Which business goal will be addressed by this choice?
a) availability
b) manageability
c) security
d) scalability
Solution: a) availability
Explanation: Availability is one of the components of information security where authorized users must have uninterrupted access to important resources and data.
19. When a security audit is performed at a company, the auditor reports that new users have access to network resources beyond their normal job roles. Additionally, users who move to different positions retain their prior permissions. What kind of violation is occurring?
a) least privilege
b) network policy
c) password
d) audit
Solution: a) least privilege
Explanation: Users should have access to information on a need to know basis. When a user moves from job role to job role, the same concept applies.
20. Which component of the zero trust security model focuses on secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an application?
a) workflow
b) workforce
c) workload
d) workplace
Solution: c) workload
Explanation: The workload pillar focuses on applications that are running in the cloud, in data centers, and other virtualized environments that interact with one another. It focuses on secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an application.
21. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
a) to determine which resources a user can access
b) to provide challenge and response questions
c) to keep track of the actions of a user
d) to require users to prove who they are
Solution: c) to keep track of the actions of a user
Explanation: Authentication, authorization, and accounting are network services collectively known as AAA. Authentication requires users to prove who they are. Authorization determines which resources the user can access. Accounting keeps track of the actions of the user.
22. Which term describes the ability of a web server to keep a log of the users who access the server, as well as the length of time they use it?
a) authentication
b) accounting
c) assigning permissions
d) authorization
Solution: b) accounting
Explanation: Accounting records what users do and when they do it, including what is accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made. Accounting keeps track of how network resources are used.
23. Match the information security component with the description.
24. What are two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol? (Choose two.)
a) encryption of the entire body of the packet
b) encryption of the password only
c) the use of UDP ports for authentication and accounting
d) the separation of the authentication and authorization processes
e) the use of TCP port 49
Solution: c) the use of UDP ports for authentication and accounting, d) the separation of the authentication and authorization processes
Explanation: RADIUS is an open-standard AAA protocol using UDP port 1645 or 1812 for authentication and UDP port 1646 or 1813 for accounting. It combines authentication and authorization into one process.
25. Which AAA component can be established using token cards?
a) accounting
b) authorization
c) authentication
d) auditing
Solution: c) authentication
Explanation: The authentication component of AAA is established using username and password combinations, challenge and response questions, and token cards. The authorization component of AAA determines which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform. The accounting and auditing component of AAA keeps track of how network resources are used.
26. What is a characteristic of the security artichoke, defense-in-depth approach?
a) Threat actors can easily compromise all layers safeguarding the data or systems.
b) Threat actors no longer have to peel away each layer before reaching the target data or system.
c) Threat actors can no longer penetrate any layers safeguarding the data or system.
d) Each layer has to be penetrated before the threat actor can reach the target data or system.
Solution: d) Each layer has to be penetrated before the threat actor can reach the target data or system.
Explanation: In the security artichoke, defense-in-depth approach not every layer needs to be penetrated by the threat actor in order to get to the data or systems. Each layer provides a layer of protection while simultaneously providing a path to attack.
27. What is a characteristic of a layered defense-in-depth security approach?
a) Three or more devices are used.
b) Routers are replaced with firewalls.
c) One safeguard failure does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
d) When one device fails, another one takes over.
Solution: c) One safeguard failure does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
Explanation: When a layered defense-in-depth security approach is used, layers of security are placed through the organization-at the edge, within the network, and on endpoints. The layers work together to create the security architecture. In this environment, a failure of one safeguard does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
28. What is the benefit of a defense-in-depth approach?
a) All network vulnerabilities are mitigated.
b) The need for firewalls is eliminated.
c) Only a single layer of security at the network core is required.
d) The effectiveness of other security measures is not impacted when a security mechanism fails.
Solution: d) The effectiveness of other security measures is not impacted when a security mechanism fails.
Explanation: The benefit of the defense-in-depth approach is that network defenses are implemented in layers so that failure of any single security mechanism does not impact other security measures.
29. Match the term to the description.
(Matching questions require user interaction and cannot be displayed in text form.)
30. What is the principle behind the nondiscretionary access control model?
a) It applies the strictest access control possible.
b) It allows access decisions to be based on roles and responsibilities of a user within the organization.
c) It allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data.
d) It allows access based on attributes of the object be to accessed.
Solution: b) It allows access decisions to be based on roles and responsibilities of a user within the organization.
Explanation: The nondiscretionary access control model, also known as role-based access control (RBAC), allows access decisions to be based on the roles and responsibilities of a user within the organization rather than the identity of the user.
31. Which type of access control applies the strictest access control and is commonly used in military or mission critical applications?
a) Non-discretionary access control
b) discretionary access control (DAC)
c) attribute-based access control (ABAC)
d) mandatory access control (MAC)
Solution: d) mandatory access control (MAC)
Explanation: Access control models are used to define the access controls implemented to protect corporate IT resources. The different types of access control models are as follows:
32. Passwords, passphrases, and PINs are examples of which security term?
a) identification
b) access
c) authentication
d) authorization
Solution: c) authentication
Explanation: Authentication methods are used to strengthen access control systems. It is important to understand the available authentication methods.
33. How does AIS address a newly discovered threat?
a) by creating response strategies against the new threat
b) by advising the U.S. Federal Government to publish internal response strategies
c) by enabling real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators with U.S. Federal Government and the private sector
d) by mitigating the attack with active response defense mechanisms
Solution: c) by enabling real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators with U.S. Federal Government and the private sector
Explanation: AIS responds to a new threat as soon as it is recognized by immediately sharing it with U.S. Federal Government and the private sector to help them protect their networks against that particular threat.