1. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)
a) video
b) web
c) file transfer
d) voice
e) peer to peer

Solution: a) video and d) voice

Explanation: RTP is commonly used for real-time transmission of audio and video data over IP networks, making it suitable for applications such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) and video conferencing.

2. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?
a) ZigBee
b) LoRaWAN
c) 5G
d) Wi-Fi

Solution: a) ZigBee

Explanation: ZigBee is a low-power, low-data-rate wireless communication technology commonly used in home automation and Internet of Things (IoT) applications.

3. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?
a) application
b) network access
c) internet
d) transport

Solution: c) internet

Explanation: The internet layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to the OSI model's network layer, providing the routing and forwarding of packets across interconnected networks.

4. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?
a) DNS
b) email
c) file
d) web

Solution: a) DNS

Explanation: A DNS (Domain Name System) server uses various record types, including A (IPv4 address), NS (name server), AAAA (IPv6 address), and MX (mail exchange), to provide domain name resolution services.

5. What are proprietary protocols?
a) protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
b) protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
c) protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation
d) a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

Solution: c) protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

Explanation: Proprietary protocols are developed and controlled by organizations, giving them exclusive rights over their use and operation.

6. What service is provided by DNS?
a) Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
b) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
c) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
d) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

Solution: a) Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain names (e.g., www.example.com) into corresponding IP addresses (e.g., 203.0.113.1), enabling communication between devices on the internet.

7. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) SMTP
d) POP3

Solution: d) POP3

Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) uses port number 110 for email retrieval by clients from a mail server.

8. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?
a) show ip interface brief
b) ping
c) show interfaces
d) ipconfig

Solution: d) ipconfig

Explanation: The "ipconfig" command is used on Windows PCs to display the IP configuration, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway of the computer.

9. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?
a) client-based
b) master-slave
c) point-to-point
d) peer-to-peer (P2P)

Solution: d) peer-to-peer (P2P)

Explanation: In a peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model, devices on the network can share resources such as printers or files without the need for a dedicated server. In this scenario, the home computer acts as a host sharing its printer with other computers on the network.

10. What characteristic describes a virus?
a) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
b) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
c) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
d) malicious software or code running on an end device

Solution: d) malicious software or code running on an end device

Explanation: A virus is a type of malware that can replicate itself and spread to other computers or systems by attaching to other programs or files. Once executed, it can perform various malicious actions on the infected device.

11. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
a) financial transactions, web page, audio conference
b) audio conference, financial transactions, web page
c) financial transactions, audio conference, web page
d) audio conference, web page, financial transactions

Solution: c) financial transactions, audio conference, web page

Explanation: When QoS (Quality of Service) is implemented, data types are prioritized based on their importance and requirements. In this scenario, financial transactions would typically have the highest priority, followed by the audio conference, and then the web page access.

12. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

1. This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider. - global routing
2. This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets. - subnet ID
3. This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address. - interface ID

13. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?


Solution: d) application, transport, internet, and network access layers

Explanation: When Host1 transfers a file to the server, the data moves through various layers of the TCP/IP model. These layers include the application layer (where the file transfer protocol operates), the transport layer (which ensures reliable data delivery), the internet layer (which facilitates routing and forwarding), and the network access layer (which governs the transmission of data over the physical network medium).

14. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

1. Checks CRC and frame length - store-and-forward
2. May transmit corrupt or runt frame - cut-through
3. Forwards frames before receiving destination address field - cut-through
4. Requires Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames - store-and-forward

15. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?


Solution: R1: G0/0

Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 should be the router interface attached to the LAN that H1 is part of. In this case, the G0/0 interface of R1 connects to the LAN where H1 resides, so its IP address should be configured as the default gateway on H1.

16. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?
a) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
b) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
c) Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
d) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

Solution: a) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

Explanation: Internet Messenger, also known as instant messaging software, provides a platform for real-time text communication between users over the internet or a network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network.


Solution:

• Network A - 192.168.0.128 /25
• Network B - 192.168.0.0 /26
• Network C - 192.168.0.96 /27
• Network D - 192.168.0.80/30

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?


Solution: ARP

Explanation: The table displayed in the exhibit represents the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) table, which maps IP addresses to MAC (Media Access Control) addresses in a network.

19. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
a) crosstalk
d) RFI​
e) EMI

Answer: a) crosstalk, d) RFI​

20. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
b) It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

Answer: b) It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

22. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?
a) DNS

Answer: a) DNS

23. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.128

Answer: a) 255.255.255.128

24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
a) malicious software or code running on an end device

Answer: a) malicious software or code running on an end device

19. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
a) crosstalk
b) extended length of cabling
c) RFI​
d) EMI
e) signal attenuation

Answer: a) crosstalk, c) RFI​

20. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
a) It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
b) It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
c) It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
d) It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
e) It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

Answer: b) It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

22. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?
a) DNS
b) NetBIOS (NetBT)
c) POP3
d) IMAP

Answer: a) DNS

23. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.128
b) 255.255.255.192
c) 255.255.255.224
d) 255.255.255.240

Answer: a) 255.255.255.128

24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
a) malicious software or code running on an end device
b) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
c) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
d) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

Answer: a) malicious software or code running on an end device

25. What service is provided by HTTPS?
a) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
b) Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
c) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
d) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

Answer: c) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

26. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?
a) The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC.
b) The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.
c) The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.
d) The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

Answer: b) The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.

27. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.240
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.192
d) 255.255.255.128

Answer: b) 255.255.255.224

29. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?
a) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
b) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
c) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
d) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

Answer: d) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

31. What service is provided by SMTP?
a) Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.
b) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
c) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
d) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

Answer: a) Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.

32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
a) A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
b) A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
c) A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
d) A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

Answer: c) A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

33. Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?
a) Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
b) Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
c) Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
d) Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200

Answer: a) Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab, Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb, Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200, Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
a) strengthening of a signal by a networking device
b) leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
c) time for a signal to reach its destination
d) loss of signal strength as distance increases

Answer: d) loss of signal strength as distance increases

35. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
a) The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
b) The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
c) The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
d) The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

Answer: c) The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
a) TCP
b) IP
c) UDP
d) POP
e) DNS
f) Ethernet

Answer: d) POP, e) DNS

37. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?
a) automation
b) accounting
c) authentication
d) authorization

Answer: d) authorization

38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
a) message size
b) message encoding
c) connector specifications
d) media selection
e) delivery options
f) end-device installation

Answer: b) message encoding, d) media selection, e) delivery options

39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
a) does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
b) operates independently of the network media
c) retransmits packets if errors occur
d) re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
e) guarantees delivery of packets

Answer: a) does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection, b) operates independently of the network media

40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)
a) security
b) quality of service
c) scalability
d) powerline networking
e) integrity
f) fault tolerance

Answer: b) quality of service, e) integrity, f) fault tolerance

41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
a) improper termination
b) low-quality shielding in cable
c) installing cables in conduit
d) low-quality cable or connectors
e) loss of light over long distances

Answer: a) improper termination, d) low-quality cable or connectors

42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
a) 192.168.1.64/26
b) 192.168.1.32/27
c) 192.168.1.32/28
d) 192.168.1.64/29

Answer: d) 192.168.1.64/29
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

43. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
a) This host does not have a default gateway configured.
b) There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
c) There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
d) The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
e) The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

Answer: b) There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1., c) There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
Explanation: The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)
a) Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
b) Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.
c) Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
d) Perform the capture on different network segments.
e) Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

Answer: b) Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types., d) Perform the capture on different network segments.
Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
a) All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
b) The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
c) Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.
d) It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.

Answer: b) The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.

46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
a) application
b) network
c) data link
d) session
e) presentation
f) transport

Answer: a) application, e) presentation, d) session
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

47. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?
a) nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network
b) open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0
c) open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
d) remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0

Answer: d) remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0
Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).

48. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
a) The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
b) The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
c) A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
d) The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
e) The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

Answer: b) The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
a) When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
b) An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
c) If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
d) If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

Answer: c) If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast., e) If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

50. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.128
b) 255.255.255.240
c) 255.255.255.248
d) 255.255.255.224

Answer: d) 255.255.255.224

51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)
a) Neighbor Solicitation
b) Destination Unreachable
c) Host Confirmation
d) Time Exceeded
e) Router Advertisement
f) Route Redirection

Answer: a) Neighbor Solicitation, e) Router Advertisement

52. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?
a) DHCP
b) SMTP
c) DNS
d) HTTP

Answer: d) HTTP

53. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
a) POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
b) Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.
c) When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
d) IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

Answer: a) POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
a) tracert
b) ipconfig
c) netstat
d) nslookup

Answer: d) nslookup
Explanation: Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
a) implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
b) enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
c) integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
d) implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
e) places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

Answer: d) implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame, e) places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
Explanation: The LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer of the Data Link Layer is responsible for the internal structure of the Ethernet frame and for placing information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame.

56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
a) The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
b) The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
c) The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
d) The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

Answer: a) The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network. In a switch, this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway .

57. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
a) The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
b) The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
c) Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
d) The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

Answer: c) Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

58. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)
Sorry, without the specific options provided, I cannot complete this question. Could you please provide the options?

59. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?
a) DoS
b) access
c) reconnaissance
d) Trojan horse

Answer: c) reconnaissance
Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is the unauthorized discovery and documentation of various computing networks, network systems, resources, applications, services, or vulnerabilities.

60. What service is provided by HTTP?
a) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
b) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
c) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
d) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

Answer: d) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

61. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?
a) FTP
b) DHCP
c) Telnet
d) SSH

Answer: b) DHCP

62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
a) Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.
b) The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.
c) The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.
d) A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
e) All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.

Answer: b) The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet., d) A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts, flooding the entire subnet, and a large number of ARP messages can slow down the switching process and lead to frequent changes in the MAC table.

63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)
a) netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
b) arp -a
c) tracert
d) ping
e) ipconfig
f) nslookup
g) telnet

Answer: b) arp -a, d) ping, e) ipconfig
Explanation: The ARP command displays and modifies the IP-to-Physical address translation tables used by address resolution protocol (ARP). Ping tests connectivity to a given destination by sending ICMP echo request packets. Ipconfig displays the TCP/IP network configuration values, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway of the local computer.

64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?
a) Analyze the destination IP address
b) Switch the packet to the directly connected interface
c) Look up the next-hop address for the packet
d) Discard the traffic after consulting the route table

Answer: b) Switch the packet to the directly connected interface
Explanation: When the router matches the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry, it switches the packet to the directly connected interface.

65. What characteristic describes antispyware?
a) Applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
b) A network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
c) Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
d) A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

Answer: a) Applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
a) Telnet
b) AUX
c) SSH
d) Console

Answer: c) SSH
Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is the recommended access method for remote CLI connectivity as it provides encrypted communication, ensuring the privacy and security of user credentials and session contents.

67. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)
a) Implement a VPN
b) Implement network firewalls
c) Implement RAID
d) Implement strong passwords
e) Update the operating system and other application software
f) Install and update antivirus software

Answer: b) Implement network firewalls, f) Install and update antivirus software
Explanation: Network firewalls help block malicious traffic from entering the network, while antivirus software detects and removes malware infections from systems.

68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
a) Brute-force attack
b) Trojan horse
c) DoS
d) Buffer overflow

Answer: b) Trojan horse
Explanation: A Trojan horse is a type of malicious software that appears legitimate but performs malicious actions, such as disabling security features like firewalls.

69. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?
a) User Datagram Protocol field
b) Transport layer error check field
c) Flow control field
d) Frame check sequence field
e) Error correction process field

Answer: d) Frame check sequence field
Explanation: The frame check sequence field contains error detection information created by the source node and used by the destination node to verify the integrity of the transmitted data signal.

70. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.248
b) 255.255.255.0
c) 255.255.255.128
d) 255.255.255.192

Answer: c) 255.255.255.128
Explanation: The subnet mask 255.255.255.128 provides 126 usable IP addresses, which is more than enough to support 4 connected devices.

71. What service is provided by POP3?
a) Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
b) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
c) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
d) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

Answer: a) Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is an email retrieval protocol that allows users to retrieve email from a mail server to their local mail application.

72. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)
a) Antispyware
b) Virtual private networks
c) Intrusion prevention systems
d) Strong passwords
e) Antivirus software

Answer: b) Virtual private networks, c) Intrusion prevention systems
Explanation: Virtual private networks (VPNs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPS) are commonly used in corporate environments to enhance network security.

73. What characteristic describes antivirus software?
a) Applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software.
b) A network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network.
c) A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization.
d) Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications.

Answer: a) Applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software.
Explanation: Antivirus software is designed to detect, prevent, and remove malicious software infections from end devices.

74. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?
a) It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
b) It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
c) It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
d) It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.

Answer: c) It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
Explanation: Time-to-Live (TTL) is a field in the IPv4 header that specifies the number of hops (routers) a packet can traverse before being discarded. When a router receives a packet, it decrements the TTL by 1. If the TTL reaches 0, the packet is discarded, and a Time Exceeded message is sent to the source host.

75. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) SMTP
d) TFTP

Answer: d) TFTP
Explanation: The destination port number 69 corresponds to the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), which is a simple file transfer protocol often used for transferring configuration files or firmware to network devices.

76. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
a) Configure DNS on the router.
b) Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
c) Configure the IP domain name on the router.
d) Generate the SSH keys.
e) Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
f) Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.

Answer: c) Configure the IP domain name on the router, d) Generate the SSH keys, e) Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
Explanation: To configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections, the IP domain name must be configured, SSH keys must be generated, and inbound vty SSH sessions must be enabled.

77. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
a) Handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware.
b) Implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection.
c) Places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame.
d) Implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame.
e) Adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data.

Answer: a) Handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware, e) Adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data.
Explanation: The MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer is responsible for adding Ethernet control information to network protocol data and for handling communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware.

78. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?
a) All IPv6 enabled devices on the local link.
b) All IPv6 DHCP servers.
c) All IPv6 enabled devices across the network.
d) All IPv6 configured routers on the local link.

Answer: d) All IPv6 configured routers on the local link.
Explanation: The destination address FF02::2 is a link-local multicast address that targets all IPv6 routers on the local link.

79. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
a) Subnet ID
b) Subnet mask
c) Broadcast address
d) Global routing prefix
e) Interface ID

Answer: a) Subnet ID, d) Global routing prefix, e) Interface ID
Explanation: An IPv6 global unicast address consists of three main parts: the global routing prefix, the subnet ID, and the interface ID.

80. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
a) Extensive cabling
b) Mobility options
c) Packet collision
d) Interference
e) Security
f) Coverage area

Answer: b) Mobility options, d) Interference, e) Security
Explanation: When building a wireless network, it's important to consider mobility options, interference from other devices, and security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access.

81. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?
a) Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
b) Exit global configuration mode.
c) Power cycle the device.
d) Reboot the device.
e) Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

Answer: a) Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
Explanation: Entering CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt allows the network administrator to quickly test whether the banner message is properly configured without the need for a device reboot or extensive configuration changes.

82. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
a) token passing
b) CSMA/CA
c) priority ordering
d) CSMA/CD

Answer: b) CSMA/CA
Explanation: CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the method used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network, where devices listen before transmitting to avoid collisions.

83. What is a function of the data link layer?
a) provides the formatting of data
b) provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
c) provides delivery of data between two applications
d) provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

Answer: d) provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
Explanation: The data link layer is responsible for the exchange of frames over a common local media, providing a means for devices to communicate on the same network segment.

84. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
a) to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
b) to end communication when data transmission is complete
c) to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
d) to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

Answer: d) to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
Explanation: The TCP sliding window allows a destination device to inform a source to slow down the rate of transmission by reducing the value contained in the window field of the segment.

85. What characteristic describes spyware?
a) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
b) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
c) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
d) the use of stolen credentials to access private data

Answer: b) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a user device without their knowledge and collects information about their activities.

86. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
a) store-and-forward switching
b) borderless switching
c) ingress port buffering
d) cut-through switching

Answer: d) cut-through switching
Explanation: Cut-through switching forwards frames as soon as the destination MAC address is read, without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Frames that fail the FCS (Frame Check Sequence) check are dropped.

87. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
a) FEC0::/10
b) FDEE::/7
c) FE80::/10
d) FF00::/8

Answer: c) FE80::/10
Explanation: Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10, specifically assigned to interfaces for communication on the local network segment.

88. What service is provided by FTP?
a) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
b) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
c) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
d) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

Answer: c) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and a server over a network, providing a mechanism for uploading and downloading files.

89. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
a) DNS server
b) source port number
c) HTTP server
d) source MAC address
e) default gateway

Answer: a) DNS server, e) default gateway
Explanation: To access a website like http://www.cisco.com/, the host needs to know the DNS server to resolve the domain name to an IP address and the default gateway to route traffic outside the local network.

90. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)
a) NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
b) NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
c) NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
d) NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
e) NAT improves packet handling.
f) NAT causes routing tables to include more information.

Answer: b) NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity, d) NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
Explanation: NAT (Network Address Translation) can hinder applications requiring end-to-end connectivity by hiding internal IP addresses. However, it helps slow down IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple hosts to share a single public IP address.

91. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?
a) 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
b) 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
c) C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
d) 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

Answer: b) 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
Explanation: The EUI-64 process involves inserting the hexadecimal value FFFE in the middle of the MAC address and flipping the seventh bit. The resulting interface ID in this case would be 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8.

92. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?
a) SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC address.
b) SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
c) PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
d) RT1 will send an ARP reply with the RT1 Fa0/0 MAC address.
e) RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

Answer: c) PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
Explanation: When PC1 issues an ARP request, PC2, the device with the corresponding IP address, responds with its MAC address.

93. What service is provided by BOOTP?
a) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
b) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
c) Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
d) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

Answer: c) Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
Explanation: BOOTP (Bootstrap Protocol) is a legacy protocol used to provide IP addresses and boot information to diskless workstations.

94. What characteristic describes adware?
a) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
b) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
c) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
d) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

Answer: b) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
Explanation: Adware is software that displays advertisements or collects user data without the user's consent.

95. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
a) cut-through
b) store-and-forward
c) fast-forward
d) fragment-free

Answer: b) store-and-forward
Explanation: When a user-defined error threshold is reached on a per-port basis, the switch will revert to store-and-forward switching, which checks the integrity of each frame before forwarding.

96. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) - ITNv7 Final Exam
ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam

Place the options in the following order:
peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer application
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

Answer:
AD

97. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
a) error detection
b) frame delimiting
c) accessing the media
d) data encapsulation
e) logical addressing

Answer: b) frame delimiting, d) data encapsulation
Explanation: The Ethernet MAC sublayer is responsible for framing, which involves adding start and end delimiters to frames, and for data encapsulation, which involves adding headers and trailers to data for transmission.

98. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 15

Answer:

99. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 16

Answer:

100. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?
a) 2001:DA48::/64
b) 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
c) 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
d) 2001::/64

Answer: c) 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
Explanation: The subnet ID associated with an IPv6 address is determined by the network prefix, which in this case is 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64.

101. Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 17

Answer:

102. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
a) syslog records and messages
b) the network performance baseline
c) debug output and packet captures
d) network configuration files

Answer: b) the network performance baseline
Explanation: Checking the network performance baseline can help network engineers determine if the reported delays are within normal network behavior or if there is an underlying issue affecting performance.

103. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?
a) It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
b) It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
c) It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
d) It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

Answer: b) It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
Explanation: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

104. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
a) The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
b) The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
c) The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
d) The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
e) The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

Answer: b) The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6., e) The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.
Explanation: IPv6 packet headers have some differences from IPv4 headers. The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6, as IPv6 has its own Version field. Additionally, the Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

105. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.252
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
e) 255.255.255.0
f) 255.255.255.224

Answer: f) 255.255.255.224
Explanation: A subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, or /27, would provide enough addresses for the IP phones, PCs, printers, and scanners, while also making efficient use of available addresses.

106. What characteristic describes identity theft?
a) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
b) software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
c) software that identifies fast-spreading threats
d) a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

Answer: a) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
Explanation: Identity theft involves the unauthorized use of someone's personal information, such as passwords

107. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.240
b) 255.255.255.0
c) 255.255.255.248
d) 255.255.255.224

Answer: d) 255.255.255.224
Explanation: The smallest network mask that can accommodate 200 connected devices is a /23 subnet mask, which translates to 255.255.254.0. This provides 510 host addresses, which is sufficient for 200 devices.

108. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
a) cost per meter (foot)
b) cable lengths
c) connector color
d) pinouts
e) connector types
f) tensile strength of plastic insulator

Answer: b) cable lengths, e) connector types, f) tensile strength of plastic insulator
Explanation: When constructing and installing cabling, it is important to follow standards related to cable lengths, connector types, and the tensile strength of the plastic insulator. These standards ensure proper installation and performance of the cabling infrastructure.

109. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 18

Answer:

110. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 19

Answer:

111. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?
a) IMAP
b) FTP
c) SSH
d) Telnet

Answer: a) IMAP
Explanation: IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) uses port number 143 for communication. IMAP is commonly used for retrieving emails from a mail server.

112. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)
a) default window size
b) connectionless communication
c) port numbering
d) 3-way handshake
e) ability to carry digitized voice
f) use of checksum

Answer: c) port numbering, f) use of checksum
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP use port numbering to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Additionally, error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received.

113. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 20

Answer:

114. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?
a) FTP
b) LDAP
c) SLP
d) SNMP

Answer: a) FTP
Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses port number 21 for communication. FTP is commonly used for transferring files between a client and a server over a network.

115. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
a) attached Ethernet cable
b) IP address
c) MAC address
d) RJ-45 port
e) TCP/IP protocol stack

Answer: c) MAC address
Explanation: The MAC (Media Access Control) address of a NIC (Network Interface Card) is associated with the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. It uniquely identifies the device within a network segment.

116. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.248
c) 255.255.255.224
d) 255.255.255.240

Answer: b) 255.255.255.248
Explanation: The smallest network mask that can accommodate 10 connected devices is a /28 subnet mask, which translates to 255.255.255.240. This provides 14 host addresses, which is sufficient for 10 devices.

117. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
a) wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
b) twisting the wires together into pairs
c) terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
d) encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

Answer: b) twisting the wires together into pairs
Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out, reducing interference.

118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 21

Answer:

119. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 22

Answer:

120. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) - ITNv7 Final Exam

Answer:

121. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?
i304957v1n1_209418.png

Answer:

122. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?
a) LC connector
b) SC connector
c) BNC
d) RJ 11
e) RJ 45

Answer: e) RJ 45 (true answer)
Explanation: RJ45 connectors are commonly used with twisted-pair cabling in Ethernet LANs.

123. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?
a) SSH
b) SMB/CIFS
c) HTTPS
d) SLP

Answer: a) SSH
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) typically uses port 22 for secure remote access to devices.

124. What characteristic describes an IPS?
a) a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
b) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
c) software that identifies fast-spreading threats
d) software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

Answer: c) software that identifies fast-spreading threats
Explanation: IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) monitors incoming and outgoing traffic for malware, network attack signatures, etc., and can immediately stop threats.

125. What service is provided by DHCP?
a) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
b) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
c) Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.
d) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

Answer: c) Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.
Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network.

126. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) - ITNv7 Final Exam

Answer:

127. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for the default gateway. Which network devices will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
i360201v3n1_275353.png

Answer:

128. Which wireless technology has low-power and low-data rate requirements making it popular in IoT environments?
a) Bluetooth
b) Zigbee
c) WiMAX
d) Wi-Fi

Answer: b) Zigbee
Explanation: Zigbee is commonly used in IoT environments due to its low-power and low-data rate requirements.

129. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
a) neighbor solicitations
b) echo requests
c) neighbor advertisements
d) echo replies
e) router solicitations
f) router advertisements

Answer: a) neighbor solicitations, c) neighbor advertisements
Explanation: Neighbor solicitations and neighbor advertisements are necessary for IPv6 address resolution.

130. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
a) It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
b) It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
c) It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
d) It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

Answer: d) It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
Explanation: Before using the IPv6 address obtained via SLAAC, the client must ensure that the address is not already in use on the network by sending an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message.

131. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?
a) The default gateway is not operational.
b) The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
c) Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.
d) The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

Answer: a) The default gateway is not operational.
Explanation: If the ping to the default gateway failed, it suggests that the gateway is not operational.

132. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?
a) 256
b) 512
c) 1024
d) 4096

Answer: c) 1024
Explanation: Since each subnet is defined by the network prefix, and 8 bits are borrowed from the interface ID space (leaving 56 bits for the network prefix), there are 2^8 = 256 subnets available.

133. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?
AD
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224

Answer: 255.255.255.192
Explanation: In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices. The mask associated with leaving 6 host bits for addressing is 255.255.255.192.

134. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
172.168.10.99
CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
172.168.10.65
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

Answer: BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
Explanation: When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

135. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

Answer: Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function.

136. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
AD
Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.
Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.

Answers: Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host. Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
Explanation: In a network without NAT, IP addresses remain constant along the entire path to a target host, while MAC addresses change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.

137. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
a) It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
b) It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
c) It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
d) It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.

Solution: c) It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.

138. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
a) The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
b) A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
c) After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
d) All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
e) A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
f) Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

Solution: b) A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
c) After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
d) All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

139. Which information does the show startup-config command display?
a) the IOS image copied into RAM
b) the bootstrap program in the ROM
c) the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
d) the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

Solution: d) the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

140. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
a) netstat -s
b) route print
c) show ip route
d) netstat -r
e) tracert

Solution: b) route print
d) netstat -r

141. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
a) directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
b) placing data on the network medium
c) carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts
d) providing dedicated end-to-end connections
e) providing end devices with a unique network identifier

Solution: a) directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
c) carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts

142. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
a) Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S.
b) If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
c) The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
d) The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
e) It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.
f) If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S.

Solution: b) If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
e) It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.

143. What characteristic describes a VPN?
a) software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
b) software that identifies fast-spreading threats
c) a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
d) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

Solution: c) a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

144. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
a) to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
b) to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
c) to enable the switch to be managed remotely
d) to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

Solution: c) to enable the switch to be managed remotely

145. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 25

146. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?
a) the network domain of the destination host
b) the IP address of the default gateway
c) the MAC address of the destination host
d) the MAC address of the default gateway

Solution: c) the MAC address of the destination host

147. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
a) A company can monopolize the market.
b) The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
c) An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
d) It encourages competition and promotes choices.

Solution: d) It encourages competition and promotes choices.

148. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
a) The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
b) The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
c) UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
d) The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
e) TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
f) The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

Solution: a) The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
d) The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
f) The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

149. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 26

150. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 27
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224

Solution: 255.255.255.240

151. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices.
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 28
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

Solution: 255.255.255.240

152. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to Networks 28

153. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
a) IP addresses
b) interface descriptions
c) MAC addresses
d) next-hop addresses
e) Layer 1 statuses
f) speed and duplex settings

Solution: a) IP addresses
e) Layer 1 statuses

154. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load. The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?
a) ping
b) nslookup
c) tracert
d) ipconfig /displaydns

Solution: c) tracert

155. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?
a) Header Length
b) Differentiated Services
c) Time-to-Live
d) Fragment Offset

Solution: c) Time-to-Live

156. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)
a) Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
b) Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
c) Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
d) Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
e) Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.

Solution: a) Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
b) Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.

157. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) - ITNv7 Final Exam

158. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
a) when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
b) when the RTT value reaches zero
c) when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
d) when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
e) when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

Solution: d) when the value in the TTL field reaches zero

159. Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?
a) virus
b) worm
c) phishing
d) spam

Solution: b) worm